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Contents
Printable Version
REQUIREMENTS
A
Certificate B Certificate C Certificate
"A" CERTIFICATE
ORAL EXAMINATION
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures
ANSWERS
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures
"B" CERTIFICATE
ORAL EXAMINATION
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures Airworthiness
ANSWERS
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures Airworthiness
"C" CERTIFICATE
ORAL EXAMINATION
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures Basic Soaring Meteorology
ANSWERS
Basic
Theory Flight Rules and Procedures Basic Soaring Meteorology
"A"
CERTIFICATE
Requirements
1. Minimum age
15 years.
2. GFA medical
declaration signed.
3. Minimum of
5 solo flights with normal landings.
4. Satisfactory
check flight, which must include the following as a minimum:-
· An awareness
of pre-spin symptoms and a demonstration of the correct action to prevent
a spin developing,
· An accurate
circuit without reference to the altimeter,
· Correct handling
of selected emergencies at the discretion of the checking instructor.
5. Oral examination
on basic theory and flight rules and procedures.
Privileges and
limitations
1. May only fly
solo under the direct supervision of an instructor.
2. May carry
out local soaring only.
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"B"
CERTIFICATE
Requirements
1. A total of
15 solo flights with normal landings, including at least one soaring
flight of not less than 30 minutes duration. (Note: This means an overall
total of 15 solo flights, not 15 solo flights since qualifying for the
"A" Certificate).
2. Completion
of post-solo training syllabus in accordance with the Instructor Handbook.
3. Oral examination
on basic theory, flight rules and procedures (including GFA Ops Regs
and MOSP) and basic airworthiness.
Privileges and
limitations
1. May carry
out local soaring only.
2. May carry
out mutual flying, subject to the following conditions:-
· The other occupant
of the glider also holds a minimum of a "B" Certificate.
· Each mutual
flight is authorized by and carried out under the direct supervision
of the Duty Instructor, who shall nominate the command pilot for the
flight.
· The command
pilot shall carry out the take off and landing
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"C"
CERTIFICATE
Requirements
1. A total of
20 solo or mutual flights, including two solo soaring flights of at
least one hour's duration each. (Notes: (i) This means an overall total
of 20 solos/mutual's, (ii) Only time in command of mutual flights can
be counted towards this total).
2. Trained and
checked in ability to carry out a safe out landing.
3. Received a
"passenger awareness" briefing, using the appropriate chapter in Part
2 of the Instructor's Handbook as a reference. (Note: The document "The
Air Experience Instructor Rating" is being incorporated into the new
Instructor Handbook).
4. Oral test
on basic theory, basic navigation, basic meteorology, airways procedures,
out landing hazards, post-out landing actions and SAR requirements.
5. Demonstrate
satisfactory spin entry and recovery. This may be carried out dual or
solo (observed from the ground) at the discretion of the supervising
instructor.
Privileges and
limitations
1. May fly cross-country
at the discretion of the CFI or Instructor Panel.
2. May carry
"family/friend" passengers (not for hire or reward and not Air Experience
Flights) at the discretion of the CFI/Instructor Panel and under the
direct supervision of the Duty Instructor.
Important note
The "C" Certificate
provides the training and basic qualification for cross-country flying
and the carriage of "family/friend" passenger. However, these privileges
may only be exercised on any given day at the discretion of the Duty
Instructor.
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"A"
CERTIFICATE ORAL EXAMINATION
BASIC
THEORY
1. How is "safe
speed near the ground" calculated? Nominate that speed for the glider
you fly.
2. What is the
secondary effect of rudder?
3. What happens
to the stalling speed in a turn? Why does it happen?
4. Define aileron
drag and explain (a) how the designer compensates for it and (b) how
the pilot copes with it.
5. Of the forces
acting on a glider in flight, which one is used to turn the glider?
6. On a glider
fitted with an elevator trim tab, which way will the tab move if the
trim lever is moved forward?
7. Airbrake's
are used on final approach to control ....what?
8. If a wing
drops at the stall, what is the correct action on the part of the pilot?
9. What is the
correct recovery action from a fully-developed spin?
10. Define wind-gradient
and explain (a) what is its effect on a glider and (b) what action does
the pilot take to compensate for it.
11. What usually
happens to a glider's airspeed when it flies into a thermal?
12. Which is
the higher figure, the speed for minimum sink or the speed for least
glide angle? Nominate both figures for the glider you fly.
13. On a glider
fitted with flaps, will downward deflection of the flaps improve the
glide angle or make it worse?
14. What happens
to the stalling speed when the airbrake's are opened?
15. What kind
of stability does the glider have in the rolling plane?
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. What are the
requirements for Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) - (a) Below
10,000ft and (b) Above 10,000ft?
2. If the speed
falls to just above 1.3Vs on a winch-launch and is still falling, what
action is the pilot required to take?
3. Who gives
way when two gliders are approaching each other (a) head-on (b) on converging
headings?
4. Assuming that
the glider is not taking off or landing, what is the minimum height
to fly over a built-up area?
5. What actions
would a pilot take in the event of glider release failure on aero tow?
6. What is the
minimum vertical and horizontal separation between gliders in a thermal?
7. Who establishes
the direction of circling in a thermal?
8. What action
would the pilot take on running out of height in the circuit?
9. What is the
"gliding in progress" signal, to be located near the windsock at an
airfield?
10. On which
side does a glider overtake another glider (a) when hill-soaring, (b)at
all other times?
11. Who is entitled
to give a "Stop" signal at a launch-point?
12. What action
is required of a pilot before flying in controlled airspace?
13. At what stage
is the airbrake or spoiler control used on final approach?
14. What is the
pilot's first priority immediately following a launch failure?
15. What action
does a pilot take before carrying out intentional stalling or spinning,
or before aerobatics?
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"A" CERTIFICATE
ORAL EXAMINION - ANSWERS
BASIC
THEORY
1. 1.5 times
the stalling speed (1.5Vs).
2. Roll, caused
by the increased speed of the outer wing.
3. It increases,
because of the increase in effective weight due to an increase in "G".
This effectively increases wing-loading.
4. The down going
aileron causes an increase in induced drag, resulting in a yaw away
from the direction of intended turn (adverse yaw). The designer usually
uses differential ailerons, with more upward travel than downward, to
help fix the problem. The pilot ensures that enough rudder is used in
co-ordination with the ailerons to eliminate adverse yaw.
5. Lift - tilted
in the direction of turn when the glider is banked.
6. Up.
7. Rate of descent.
8. Stick forward.
Use only enough rudder to prevent yaw.
9. Full opposite
rudder, stick forward until glider stops spinning. Centralize rudder
and recover from dive.
10. (a) Wind-gradient
is the reduction in wind speed near the ground, caused by ground friction.
Near the ground, the glider experiences a loss of airspeed as it enters
the area of wind gradient. (b) The only cure is to carry extra speed
during the whole approach in anticipation of the loss.
11. It increases
momentarily.
12. Speed for
best glide angle is higher than speed for minimum rate of sink.
13. Make it worse.
14. It increases
by 2 to 5 knots.
15. Neutral.
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. (a) 5km, (b)
5km, (c) 8km.
2. Release immediately
and obtain 1.5Vs in preparation for landing.
3. (a) Both turn
right (b) the one which has the other on its right gives way.
4. 1500feet
5. Try again.
If no success, move out to the left and await acknowledgement from tug
pilot. Try again. If still no success, move back behind tug, then up
into high tow. Try again. Tug pilot will release glider when it is established
in high tow.
6. 200 feet
7. The first
glider in the thermal, unless local rules specify a particular direction
near the airfield (e.g. comps).
8. Modify the
circuit and select the best available landing area.
9. A double white
cross.
10. When hill
soaring, overtake on the downwind side, i.e. between the overtaken glider
and the hill. At all other times, overtake on the right.
11. Anyone who
sees a hazardous situation developing.
12. The pilot
requires a clearance from Air Traffic Control and must comply with the
terms of that clearance.
13. When a definite
overshoot situation is seen to exist.
14. Ensure speed
is set at 1.5Vs.
15. Complete
the pre-aerobatic check.
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"B"
CERTIFICATE ORAL EXAMINATION
BASIC
THEORY
1. A glider wing
always stalls at the same ……. what?
2. What is lateral
damping?
3. What kind
of stability does a glider have in the yawing plane?
4. Define wing-loading.
5. What is meant
by "laminar flow"?
6. What happens
to the rate of descent in a turn?
7. What is meant
by a "speed-limiting" airbrake?
8. Define aspect
ratio.
9. What is the
purpose of the short length of wool or string sometimes seen attached
to glider canopies?
10. What effect
do raindrops have on the wings of a high-performance glider? What action
does the pilot take to compensate?
11. How does
profile drag vary?
12. What causes
pre-stall buffet?
13. What is the
danger in banking too steeply near the ground in a strong wind?
14. What is a
"stabilized approach"?
15. The longer
a glider has been spinning, the longer it might take for recovery action
to be effective. True or false?
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. What is the
"break-off point"?
2. What is the
recommended minimum height to clear an obstacle on final approach?
3. Who is entitled
to give a "take up slack" signal?
4. Who has priority,
a glider taking off or a powered aircraft landing?
5. To whom must
a gliding club report an accident?
6. Should you
fly a glider if you donated blood the day before?
7. By what height
above the ground must all stalling, spinning and aerobatics be completed?
8. What action
do you take if you abandon a take-off, pull the release twice but know
or suspect that the cable/towrope has become entangled in the wheel
or skid?
9. What does
a rudder-waggle on aero tow mean?
10. Above what
altitude must oxygen be carried and used?
11. What action
do you take if you have mishandled the landing flare and the glider
is starting to gain height?
12. Assuming
you had a choice (i.e. airfield procedures do not take precedence),
on which side of the strip would you do a circuit in a strong crosswind?
13. Where should
the pilot's left hand be during every takeoff?
14. Prior to
every takeoff, what clearance must be obtained by the pilot?
15. When you
join the circuit, you realize that you are too high and the angle to
the strip is too steep. What action do you take?
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BASIC
AIRWORTHINESS
1. What aircraft
document should be checked before flight and what information should
be sought from it?
2. Where should
the pilot look to find the gliders minimum and maximum weak-link strengths?
3. What action
should the pilot take in the event of overstressing or over speeding
a glider in flight?
4. What is meant
by "maneuver speed (Va)"?
5. If flutter
is encountered in moderate to high speed flight, (a) what immediate
action should the pilot take, (b) what subsequent action after landing?
6. When checking
a back-release, at approximately what downward angle should the cable
automatically back-release?
7. What is "Vne"?
Is it the same at all altitudes?
8. A glider must
never be pulled forward or backward by its wingtips. Why not?
9. Every glider
has a maximum and minimum pilot weight. Where can this information be
found?
10. Under what
circumstances can a pilot lighter than the permissible minimum pilot
weight fly the glider?
11. Why is a
weak-link fitted to a cable or towrope?
12. What is meant
by the "maneuver envelope"?
13. What kind
of inspection must be carried out on a glider after it has been rigged?
14. What is a
Form 2 Inspection?
15. From an airworthiness
point of view when must aerobatics not be performed?
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"B"
CERTIFICATE ORAL EXAMINATION - ANSWERS
BASIC
THEORY
1. Angle of attack.
2. The tendency
of a wing to resist movement in roll, caused by the increased angle
of attack (and thus increased lift) on the down going wing.
3. Positive stability.
The glider tends to return to its original heading when the rudder pedals
are deflected then released.
4. Glider weight
divided by wing area.
5. A smooth,
streamlined flow of air, resulting in low drag around a glider wing,
as distinct from a turbulent, high-drag flow.
6. It increases,
because the lift is divided into two components, one acting upwards
to balance out the weight, the other acting "inwards" to provide the
turning (centripetal) force.
7. An airbrake
which will not allow the glider to exceed its maximum permitted speed
(Vne). Most modern airbrake systems will limit the speed to Vne in a
30 degree dive, but no steeper.
8. Wingspan divided
by chord.
9. Usually known
as a "yaw-string", it is more accurately described as an airflow direction
indicator. Generally used to detect slip or skid in a turn.
10. They partly
destroy the laminar flow of air past the wing, resulting in an increase
in stalling speed and an increase in the rate of sink. The pilot should
increase speed by 5 to 10 knots to compensate and should plan on a much
higher sink rate than normal.
11. As the square
of the airspeed. Twice the airspeed, four times the profile drag, three
times the airspeed, nine times the drag, etc.
12. The turbulent
airflow from the breakdown in flow over the top of the wing striking
the tail.
13. The top wing
is in an air mass of different speed to the bottom wing (wind gradient).
At low level, turning into a strong wind causes the glider to over bank,
vice-versa if turning downwind. The effect may be beyond the pilot's
ability to prevent it occurring.
14. A glider
going in the required direction at a constant airspeed and a constant
rate of descent is said to be on a stabilized approach. The best landings
result from such, approaches.
15. True but
it will only recover if the CORRECT recovery action has been taken and
the glider is within its CG limits.
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. The point
at which upper-air exercises are terminated and full commitment made
to the circuit approach and landing.
2. 50 feet or
about one wingspan.
3. Only the pilot,
or someone definitely known to have been delegated this responsibility
by the pilot.
4. ANY aircraft
landing has priority over ANY aircraft taking off.
5. The Bureau
of Air Safety Investigation (BASI) on the Australia-wide number 008
011034 and the RTO/Ops. The accident must be reported immediately.
6. No. The recommended
recovery period is 24 hours.
7. 1000 feet.
8. Shout "Stop"
(very loudly), open airbrake's fully and hold stick fully forward If
possible, apply wheel-brake.
9. Airbrake's/spoilers
or tail chute extended. Check as appropriate.
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BASIC
AIRWORTHINESS
1. Maintenance
Release/ GFA Form 1. Check expiry date or MR, check minor and major
defect pages and check that the Daily Inspection has been signed for.
2. On a placard
in the cockpit.
3. Do not allow
it to fly until inspected by a qualified person. Seek advice of an authorized
inspector. If none available, leave matters in the hands of the Duty
Inspector. DO NOT NEGLECT TO REPORT IT TO SOMEONE.
4. Maneuver speed
(Va) is the speed above which full control deflection is not permitted.
It is imposed to protect the structure. Over Va, only one third deflection
is permitted on ailerons and rudder and use of the elevator is limited
to the extent necessary to keep the glider within its permitted "G"
loadings.
5. (a) Slow down,
(b) Ground the glider and report the incident and (c) change underpants.
6. At about right
angles to the fuselage. The important thing is that the cable does NOT
have to be pulled backwards to actuate the back release. If it needs
such extreme angle to make it work, there may be something wrong with
it.
7. "Velocity
Never Exceed", the maximum permitted speed of the glider in smooth air.
It reduces with height because of the reducing air density with height.
Consult Glider manual for details.
8. It puts too
much strain on the wing root fittings because of the long leverage.
9. On the cockpit
placard.
10. Only when
the required ballast is carried in accordance with the placard and then
only if the ballast is capable of being properly secured.
11. To protect
the glider structure in the event of launch overstress.
12. The "envelope"
of speeds and "G" loadings within which it is safe to fly the glider
and outside of which damage or failure of the structure may occur.
13. A daily inspection.
14. The annual
inspection for the revalidation of the glider's Certificate of Airworthiness.
15. In rough
air.
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"C"
CERTIFICATE ORAL EXAMINATION
BASIC
THEORY
1. Assuming adequate
entry speed, how much G is capable of being produced in a 60 degree
banked turn?
2. If a glider
is not fitted with an elevator trim tab, how is trimming carried out?
3. What is "ground
effect"?
4. What is autorotation
and what causes it?
5. If you blow
lightly into the total-energy venture of a variometer system, which
way would you expect the vario needle to move?
6. You are in
a gentle turn with the bank slowly increasing and the stick coming steadily
back at a constant nose attitude. What is likely to happen if the stick
continues to come back?
7. What is meant
by a "balanced" turn?
8. What effect
does aspect ratio have on induced drag?
9. A glider is
flying at 60kts IAS into a 20kt headwind with a reading of 2kts down
on the variometer. The airfield is 10NM away. What height will you have
on arrival at the field if you set off home at 4,000ft?
10. What is the
optimum angle of bank for minimum height loss in a turn at 1.5Vs.
11. Which is
the best wing for the ground crew to hold on a crosswind aero tow takeoff?
12. What is the
effect of water-ballast on (a) stalling speed, (b) climb performance
and (c) glide angle?
13. Why are TWO
rings fitted to the end of a launching rope or cable?
14. What is the
dominant control in incipient spin recovery?
15. In a crosswind
landing using the crab method of approach, are the controls crossed
when the glider touches down?
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. What is meant
by the "non-manoeuvring area"?
2. Which way
does the aiming-point move if the glider is overshooting?
3. When is a
glider permitted to fly in the following areas: (a) Danger Area, (b)
Restricted Area (c) Prohibited Area? On which chart will these areas
be found?
4. What action
must the glider pilot take if he loses sight of the tug during an aero
tow?
5. At what height
above ground must selection of an out landing area be made on a cross-country
flight?
6. What wind-indicators
are available to assist a pilot on an out landing?
7. What is the
most common circuit-planning fault in early attempts at out landing?
8. What are the
five "S's" for choosing out landing paddocks?
9. What are the
minimum paddock standards for an aero tow retrieve from an out landing?
10. What precautions
are necessary when flying cross country on days of total fire-ban?
11. What are
the implications of landing out and failing to contact crew by radio
or telephone by last light?
12. Name three
basic precautions to take when giving an introductory flight to a relative
or friend.
13. What extra
equipment must a glider carry for operations in a Designated Remote
Area?
14. What qualifications
does a glider pilot need to communicate with Air Traffic Services?
15. What are
the horizontal and vertical extents of an MTAF? What do the initials
stand for?
16. Is it mandatory
for a glider to carry and use radio in a CTAF? What do the initials
stand for?
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BASIC
SOARING METEOROLOGY
1. At what rate
(in degrees Celsius per 1,000ft) does a thermal cool as it rises in
clear air? What is the name given to this rate?
2. What is meant
by "atmospheric stability"?
3. What is "water
vapor"?
4. What is "dew
point"?
5. If a thermal
is capped by a cloud, what does the cloud consist of?
6. What happens
to a thermal inside a convection cloud?
7. What is "Coriolis
force" and what is its effect on a wind blowing from high pressure to
low pressure?
8. In which direction
does the wind blow around an anticyclone?
9. A cyclone
is an extreme form of....what?
10. What is the
effect of an increase in height on (a) air temperature, (b)air pressure,
(c) air density.
11. Which is
likely to generate the most hazardous weather for gliding, a warm front
or a cold front?
12. In what kind
of pressure pattern is subsidence likely?
13. What is the
effect of subsidence on thermal development?
14. What is a
"down burst" or "micro burst"? Where are they likely to be found and
what does a glider pilot do about them?
15. Are the conditions
following the passage of a cold front likely to be good or bad for soaring?
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"C"
CERTIFICATE ORAL EXAMINATION - ANSWERS
BASIC
THEORY
1. 2G.
2. By an internal
spring bias in the nose-up or nose-down sense.
3. The partial
cancellation of wing down wash caused by proximity to the ground. This
results in a reduction in induced drag and an effectively flatter glide-angle.
4. Autorotation
is the tendency of an asymmetrically stalled glider to rotate continuously
in the rolling plane. Spinning is an authoritative maneuver with the
nose pointing steeply down. It is caused in the first instance by the
loss of lateral damping on a stalled wing.
5. Up.
6. The glider
will probably spin.
7. A properly
coordinated turn without slip or skid.
8. The higher
the aspect ratio (i.e. the "skinnier" the wing), the lower the induced
drag, because the wingtip vortices are less intense on a high aspect
ratio wing.
9. 1,000 feet
(Effective glide angle over the ground is 1 in 20; 10 nautical miles
would take 0.5 of a mile of height, which is 3,000 feet
10. Theoretically
50 degrees, but for practical purposes 40 t6 45 degrees.
11. The downwind
wing, because it is easier to help a pilot out of a ground loop situation.
12. (a) It is
increased, (b) It is degraded, (c) It remains the same but occurs at
a higher airspeed.
13. To ensure
that the pull exerted by the small ring on the hook is always straight
and not at an angle.
14. The elevator.
15. Yes, to counter
secondary effect of rudder when drift is kicked off.
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FLIGHT
RULES AND PROCEDURES
1. The area of
sky within which, if a launch failure occurred, the glider would be
too high to land ahead within the remaining strip length and too low
to maneuver to join a circuit
2. Downwards
in the canopy.
3. (a) Anytime
with care (b) Only in compliance with specified conditions (c) Never.
These areas will be found on Visual En route Charts (VECs) and Visual
Terminal Charts (VTCs). There are also a few WAC Charts available with
these areas marked on them.
4. Release immediately.
5. 2,000 feet
AGL
6. Cloud shadows
on ground, drift in circuit (Note: these two will give wind at height,
which will be a useful guide but not quite the same as the surface wind).
Wind-shadows on dams, dust behind cars on dirt roads, etc.
7. Too steep
an angle, cramping the circuit.
8. Size, slope,
surface, stock and surroundings. The latter check should pay particular
attention to Single Wire Earth Return (SWER) lines.
9. Authorized
Landing Area (ALA) standard, but in any case a minimum length of 600
meters.
10. Non-sparking
skids must be fitted to gliders. No aero tow retrieves because of fire
danger from tug exhausts. Retrieve cars confined to roads and not permitted
in paddock, unless it is ploughed and then only with farmer's clearance.
11. The crew
will be compelled to initiate SAR action.
12. No aerobatics
or steep turns. Gentle thermal turns. Keep flights short on rough or
very hot days.
13. An Emergency
Locator Transmitter (ELT). Equipment for a water-still.
14. Logbook endorsement
as GFA radio operator.
15. 15NM radius,
up to 5,000 ft. MTAF stands for Mandatory Traffic Advisory Frequency.
16. No, but if
it is carried in the glider, it is advisable to monitor the CTAF frequency
and broadcast if necessary. The initials stand for Common Traffic Advisory
Frequency.
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BASIC
SOARING METEOROLOGY - ANSWERS
1. 3 degrees
per 1,000ft. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate.
2. A temperature
structure in the atmosphere whereby a rising thermal will tend to reach
temperature equilibrium with its surrounds and therefore stop rising.
3. The invisible
moisture present in the atmosphere to some extent at all times.
4. The temperature
at which water vapor condenses into visible water droplets in the atmosphere.
5. Visible water
droplets (NOT water vapor).
6. It increase
its rate of ascent due to the release of latent heat when water vapor
changes its state to visible water droplets at the dew point.
7. The effect
of the earth's rotation the wind, causing an otherwise straight flow
of wind to turn into spiral patterns around areas of high and low pressure.
8. Anti-clockwise
in the Southern Hemisphere.
9. Depression.
10. They all
decrease with height.
11. A cold front
(blustery winds, rain, possible thunderstorms).
12. An anticyclone.
13. It tends
to inhibit thermal development.
14. An extremely
strong downdraft, causing locally strong surface winds which are often
hazardous. They are found on the edges of thunderstorms, often at a
considerable distance from the storm itself. Glider pilots must avoid
them at all costs; although the down burst itself may be invisible,
they are sometimes marked by areas of rising dust where they reach the
ground.
15. Good (unstable
air with enough moisture to form cumulus clouds).
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